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06-02-2008, 08:18 PM #1
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SMIDSY
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this cant be right!! help lol

Me and a friend were bored in Physics and came up with this:

a=1 b=1

a=b

a[sup]2[/sup]=ab

a[sup]2[/sup]-ab=b[sup]2[/sup]-ab

therefore:
a(a-b)=-b(a-b)

therefore: a=-b

1=-1

!!!

someone please check our algebra but I think its right!!!

06-02-2008, 08:23 PM #2
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glona
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

that acctuallylooks right lol

06-02-2008, 08:25 PM #3
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SMIDSY
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

thats what concerns me- I know that we arn't so good as to just proove 1=-1

wheres the flaw though

06-02-2008, 08:45 PM #4
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nikokapo
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

the flaw is right there

you cant simplify (a-b) with (a-b) just like that, you're eliminating results

because you said that a=1 ^ b=1, therefore a=b. so a-b = 0.

if you operated:

a*0 = -b*0 --&gt; 0 = 0

06-02-2008, 08:54 PM #5
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SMIDSY
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

Quote:
 Originally Posted by nikokapo the flaw is right there you cant simplify (a-b) with (a-b) just like that, you're eliminating results because you said that a=1 ^ b=1, therefore a=b. so a-b = 0. if you operated: a*0 = -b*0 --> 0 = 0
you mean caancelling the bracketed (a-b) s?

I cant see what the problem is i do it all the time in algebra- but if you have found the prob kudos to you!

06-02-2008, 09:00 PM #6
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Snytbaggen
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

It's kind of like this one I found a while ago (actually in the phail thread here on LPF :P)

study = no fail

no study = fail

no study + study = no fail + fail

(no + 1) * study = (no + 1) * fail

[s](no + 1)[/s] * study = [s](no + 1)[/s] * fail

study = fail

I also have one that shows women = evil, but I don't know if it will work in english *

06-02-2008, 09:07 PM #7
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SMIDSY
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

oh i didnt reaise this actually existed... it was just me and a friend messign around and then

ZOMG we just disproved maths lol

so I still dont understsand the prob?

06-02-2008, 09:07 PM #8
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Ace82
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

Quote:
 Originally Posted by nikokapo the flaw is right there you cant simplify (a-b) with (a-b) just like that, you're eliminating results because you said that a=1 ^ b=1, therefore a=b. so a-b = 0. if you operated: a*0 = -b*0 --> 0 = 0
Exactly. My mind figured it differently, but the result is the same. The double-negative thing can be confusing! But your right, 0=0, 1=1, and -1=-1.

06-02-2008, 09:09 PM #9
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SMIDSY
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

someone explain?!

06-02-2008, 09:15 PM #10
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nikokapo
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

its the same problem as 1=2, sorry but i have to leave home, i'll explain it to you later

you just have to know that it is not possible, re-read what i said before

06-02-2008, 09:16 PM #11
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SMIDSY
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

Quote:
 Originally Posted by nikokapo its the same problem as 1=2, sorry but i have to leave home, i'll explain it to you later you just have to know that it is not possible, re-read what i said before
anyone can tell you 1 is note = to -1 but it looks legit... ok tell me later....

edit:

never mind guys found it myself!

we are dividing both sides of the equation by (a-b)

(a-b)= 0

we are dividing by 0 which is mathematically impossible so it works technically in algebra but its wrong...

sorry guys lol

those of you with overdrafts are still indebted....

06-02-2008, 09:24 PM #12
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Ace82
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

Quote:
 Originally Posted by SMIDSY a(a-b)=-b(a-b) therefore: a=-b
a=1(a=1-b=1)=0

-b=-1(a=1-b=1)=0

therefore: a=b, -a=-b, 0=0, no such thing as negative zero.

06-02-2008, 09:30 PM #13
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SMIDSY
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

Quote:
 Originally Posted by Ace82 [quote author=SMIDSY link=1212434312/0#0 date=1212434312] a(a-b)=-b(a-b) therefore: a=-b
a=1(a=1-b=1)=0

-b=-1(a=1-b=1)=0

therefore: a=b, -a=-b, 0=0, no such thing as negative zero.

[/quote]

1(a-b) = 1*0=1 not 0!

06-02-2008, 10:00 PM #14
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vizp
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

There is no particular problem with a negative zero; it has the same location on the real axis as a positive zero. However, in engineering computation generally, notably in the IEEE 754 floating point standard (that you computer adheres to :-?), not only allows--but actually demands tracking negative zero as well as positive zero. The convention is useful in some types of computations, so it is used.

BTW, dividing anything finite by zero yields infinity, which, to paraphrase Woody Allen, stretches out a long way, especially toward the end.

06-02-2008, 10:18 PM #15
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Switch
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

The whole problem is division by 0.When you are simplifiyng with (a-b) you are dividing by 0 because a-b=0 because a=b.You know why division by 0 doesn't work :
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06-03-2008, 12:00 AM #16
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pseudolobster
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Re: this cant be right!! help lol

Quote:
 Originally Posted by SMIDSY [quote author=nikokapo link=1212434312/0#9 date=1212437705]its the same problem as 1=2, sorry but i have to leave home, i'll explain it to you later you just have to know that it is not possible, re-read what i said before
anyone can tell you 1 is note = to -1 but it looks legit... ok tell me later....

edit:

never mind guys found it myself!

we are dividing both sides of the equation by (a-b)

(a-b)= 0

we are dividing by 0 which is mathematically impossible so it works technically in algebra but its wrong...

sorry guys lol

those of you with overdrafts are still indebted....[/quote]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invalid...000171-QINU.7F

it's basically the same as your proof, and it points out the flaw where you're dividing by zero.... but I see you've realized that already
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